It is given that $$ L=\lim _{k \rightarrow \infty}\left\{\frac{e^{\frac{1}{k}}+2 e^{\frac{2}{k}}+3 e^{\frac{3}{k}}+\cdots+k e^{\frac{k}{k}}}{k^2}\right\} $$
I tried solving it but I am stuck on this, but it seems to be that numerator is an arithmetico-geometric sequence. Solution to this problem was given something like this:
$$s=-\dfrac{e^{\frac{1}{k}}(e-1)}{(e^{\frac{1}{k}}-1)^2}+\dfrac{ke^{1+\frac{1}{k}}}{e^{\frac{1}{k}}-1} \tag{1}\label{1}$$ where $s$ is sum of AGP series in the numerator. So $$\begin{align} L &= \displaystyle\lim_{k \to \infty} \dfrac{s}{k^2} \\ &= -(e+1)+e \tag{2}\label{2} \end{align}$$ So I am having difficulty in understanding \eqref{1} and \eqref{2} Any other aliter solution and help is appreciated.
$L$ is a Riemann sum. It is helpful to rewrite $L$ as $$ L=\lim _{k \rightarrow \infty}\left\{\frac{\frac1k e^{\frac{1}{k}}+ \frac2k e^{\frac{2}{k}}+\frac3k e^{\frac{3}{k}}+\cdots+ \frac kk e^{\frac{k}{k}}}{k}\right\} $$ by moving one division by $k$ to the numerator. Now, letting $f(x) = x e^x$, we have $$ L = \lim_{k\to \infty} \sum_{i=1}^k \frac{ f(\frac ik)}{k} = \int_0^1 f(x)\,dx. $$ By integration by parts, $\int x e^x \,dx = (x-1) e^x + C$, so $L = 0 e^1 - (-1) e^0 = 1$.