Let $A\in M_{m \times n}(\mathbb{R})$, $x\in \mathbb{R}^n$ and $b,y\in \mathbb{R}^m$. Show that if $Ax=b$ and $A^ty=0_{\mathbb{R}^m}$, then $\langle b,y\rangle=0$. Also make a geometric interpretation.
I think I may have something to do with overdetermined / underdetermined system, but do not know how to prove it.
Take this opportunity to ask for the appointment of a linear algebra and matrix reference, I'm able to do the numerical exercises mostly, but those involving statements are a big problem.
We have \begin{align*} \langle{b,y}\rangle &= \langle{Ax,y}\rangle \\ &= \langle{x,A^\intercal y}\rangle \\ &= \langle{x,0}\rangle \\ &= 0 \end{align*} where ${}^{\intercal}$ is the transpose.
Geometrically, you can think of the columns of $A$ being basis vectors for some subspace, let's call it $W$. We have $Ax=b$, so $b$ is in the image of $A$. That is, $b\in W$. We also have that $A^\intercal y=0$, so $y$ is in the kernel of $A^\intercal$. What does this mean? It means $y$ is orthogonal to the columns of $A$. Since the columns of $A$ are a basis for $W$, we must have then that $y\in W^\perp$. Since $b\in W$ and $y\in W^\perp$, it follows that $y$ and $b$ are orthogonal.