Book says:
According to the Pythagorean Theorem, two vectors are perpendicular if and only if:

Then, later is says: Let $u$ and $v$ be vectors in $\Bbb R^n$. Then u and v are orthogonal if and only if:

What I don't understand is how $\|v-u\|^2$ is the same as $\|u + v\|^2$. Why does the book present orthogonal in two different yet similar formulas?

Just look at the dot product version: We call two vectors $u$ and $v$ orthogonal if $u_1v_1+u_2v_2 = 0$.
This, however is true precisely if $(-u_1)v_1+(-u_2)v_2=0$, that is, if $-u$ and $v$ are orthogonal.
In other words, while in general $\|u-v\|^2\neq\|u+v\|^2$ it turns out that $\|u-v\|^2 = \|u\|^2+\|v\|^2$ precisely when $\|u+v\|^2=\|u-(-v)\|^2=\|u\|^2+\|-v\|^2=\|u\|^2+\|v\|^2$.
Actually, as a side remark, $\|u+v\|^2=\|u-v\|^2$ could serve as an alternative definition of orthogonality.