This is an easy question, but I am confused now.
Please see the definition in this book

In the last line. If we have $f(g)=0$, where $f(y)=p(x_{11}(y),...,x_{nn}(y))$, then after choosing different basis for $V$, do we still have $f(P^{-1}gP)=0$? Note that $p\in\mathbb{C}[(x_{11},x_{12}...,x_{nn}]$ , I am confused why the definition is independent of choice of basis.
The group $GL(V)$ is defined as the variety defined by the zero set of the polynomial $(x,y) \mapsto \det(x) * y-1$, where $x \in End(V)$ and $y \in \mathbb{C}$.
The determinant is invariant under basis transformation.
Edit: I didn't address the question in its new form. Changing the basis gives a conjugated embedding. So they are not the same groups any more, but conjugated ones. So considering an abstract linear algebraic group and a subgroup of $GL(V)$ is slightly different, but not essential.