$\textbf{Exercise12}$ Let $X$ be a normed vector space and $M$ be a proper closed subspace of $X$.
(1) $\Vert x+M\Vert = \inf\{\Vert x+y \Vert : y\in M \} $ is a norm on $X/M$.
(2) For any $\epsilon>0$, there exists $x\in X $ such that $\Vert x \Vert =1 $ and $\Vert x+m \Vert \geq 1-\epsilon$.
(3) The projection map $\pi(x)=x+M$ from $X$ to $X/M$ has norm 1.
(4) If $X$ is complete, so is $X/M$.
I already proved Exercise 12. I stuck the following problem -(b).
$\textbf{Problem}$ Suppose that $X$ and $Y$ are normed vector spaces and $T \in L(X,Y)$ where $L(X,Y)$ be the space of all bounded linear maps from $X$ to $Y$. Let $N(T)=\{x\in X: Tx=0\}$. (Actually, $N(T)=\ker(T)$).
a. $N(T)$ is a closed subspace of $X$.
b. There is a unique $S \in L(X/N(T),Y) $ such that $T=S \circ \pi$ where $\pi :X \rightarrow X/N(T)$ is a projecion. Moreover, $\Vert S \Vert = \Vert T \Vert$ .
Firstly, I proved (a) in problem. Thus, I want to use the Exercise 12 for proving (b). However, I couldn't prove the uniqueness.
$\textbf{Attempt}$ Suppose $S_1,S_2 \in L(X/N(T),Y)$ such that $T=S_1\circ \pi$ and $T=S_2\circ \pi$. Then, $(S_1-S_2)\circ \pi = 0$. And, I have $\Vert \pi \Vert =1 $ ....
Any help is appreciated...
Thank you!
Your proof is almost complete. If $S_1\neq S_2$, then there is a $0\neq y \in X/N$ such that $S_1(y)\neq S_2(y)$. There is also $x\in X\setminus N$ such that $\pi (x)=y$. Then $S_1\circ \pi (x)\neq S_2\circ \pi (x)$ and thus the two operators $S_i\circ \pi$ are not equal (and thus not both equal to $T$), so $S$ is indeed unique.