I have seen this question, but it is one-way. I would like to know if someone has some idea for the other side.
I should mention that $N_f$ is null space of $f$ and $N_i$ is null space of $f_i$, for $i = 1, ..., r$, which are $r$ linear functional on a vector space $V$.
Edited! First, I thought the equivalent condition for $f$ being a linear combination of $f_1, ..., f_r$ is $N_f\subseteq \cap N_i$. Then, by the answer below, I got this is a wrong condition (my mistake). Afterwards, I realized the equivalent condition is $\cap N_i\subseteq N_f$.
I should add that now the proof of the reverse is obvious.
If $f_1 = f_2$ then $f= f_1-f_2$ is a linear combination of $f_1, f_2$, but $N_f$ is not a subset of $N_1 \cap N_2$.
So the other side is not true.