I understand that $L$ maps from $\mathbb{R^1} \to \mathbb{R^1}$, but why does it sense to have $L(x1) = xL(1)$? Why would they be equivalent?
2026-04-19 21:08:54.1776632934
Linear Operator Proof (Show that $L(x)=ax$ for $Ɐxϵ\mathbb{R^1}$)
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$L(xa)=xL(a)$ is part of the definition of a linear operator. (The other part is $L(a+b)=L(a)+L(b)$.)