I found the following proof in my notes:
$E(Y_i) = E[\beta_0 + \beta X_i + \varepsilon_i] =\cdots= \beta_0 + \beta X_i$. This does not seem right to me, however. Why would $E(\beta_1 X_i) = \beta_1 X_i$? I wonder if i might have written it down incorrectly, with the actual proof meaning to be for the estimated value Yi hat (I don't know how to code this unfortunately). Does anyone recall this property of linear regression?
In this sort of regression problem, $X_i$ may be random in the sense that if you take another sample, all the $X_i$ values change, but one behaves as if one seeks the conditional expected value of $Y_i$ given $X_i$, so that in effect $X_i$ is treated as if it were constant rather than random. And the $\beta$s are also being treated as constant.