For a sample of paired data (x,y), t tests are performed for the slopes of the population regression lines of y on x and of x on y. The null hypothesis in both tests is $H0:β=0$.
Is it possible for the tests two have different results (one is rejected while the other fails to be rejected)?
Also, when creating a confidence interval for the slope of the population regression line for paired data (vs independent data), does the equation $b \pm t^*SEb$, or the formula for the standard error $s/s_x\sqrt {n-1}$ change?
Correlation is a symmetrical computation. Regression of y on x is not, because it minimizes the sum of squared residuals in the y-direction, with a view toward predicting y-values from x-values.
Nevertheless, both tests of $H_0: \beta = 0$ (based on the sample estimate $\hat \beta$ in either direction) are mathematically equivalent to the test of $H_0: \rho = 0$ (based on symmetrical sample correlation $r$). Thus, the association between x and y observations, either has a sufficiently strong linear component for regression to be feasible, or not. (Note: This discussion depends on having both standard deviations $s_x$ and $s_y$ be positive.)
By contrast, the standard error used in the CI for $\beta$ depends on the 'direction' of the regression. Notice the factor $s_x$ in the formula you give in your question. Also your $s$, which I take to be $s_{y|x}$ or $s_{x|y},$ depends on the direction of the regression.
Below is output from Minitab for independently generated x and y observations. Neither of the slopes nor the correlation differs significantly from 0.
Correlation not significant. P-value = 0.725
In correlation of x on y, slope not signif. P-value = 0.725
In correlation of y on x, slope not signif. P-value = 0.725
Data are given below for reference.