I found a problem while I was working out an exercise:
If the linear transformation $A: \mathbb{R}^{m} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}^{n}$ that transform an orthonormal set of $\mathbb{R}^{m}$ in an orthonormal set of $\mathbb{R}^{n}$, the adjoint $A^{\ast}: \mathbb{R}^{n} \longrightarrow \mathbb{R}^{m}$ is left inverse of $A$?
I'm not sure about the injectivity. Any hint? I didn't want a solution.
For injectivity, note that for any non-zero vector $x$, the normalization $\hat x := \dfrac x {\|x\|}$ is well-defined. Then, the set $\{\hat x\}$ is orthonormal. What then can we say about $\{A\hat x\}$? And then $Ax$?
So, what can we say about $\ker A$?