Considering the transformations
$\ f:\Re^{2} \rightarrow \Re^{2}$ and $ g:\Re^{2} \rightarrow \Re^{2}$ defined by
$f(a,b)= (0,b)$, for any $(a,b) \in \Re^{2}$
and
$g(a,b)=(a,a)$, for any $(a,b) \in \Re^{2}$
Justify that $0$ = $f \circ g$ $\neq$ $g \circ f$
$0$ is the null transformation of $\Re^{2}$
My Resolution:
First I worked out $(f \circ g)$:
$(f \circ g)(a,b)$ = $f(g(a,b))$ = $f(a,a) = (0,0)$
Then I worked out $(g \circ f)(a,b)=g(f(a,b))=g(0,b)=(0,0)???$
What am I dong wrong?
$gf(a,b)=g(f(a,b))=g((0,b))=(0,0)$.
$fg(a,b)=f(g(a,b))=f((a,a))=(0,a)$.
So we have $gf=0$ but $gf\ne fg$. Perhaps the problem intended to say "Justify $0=gf\ne fg.$"