If we have 3 function $f$, $g$ and $h$ such that :
- $f$ is not $o(g)$
- $f$ is $o(h)$
Can we conclude that $g$ is $o(h)$ ?
i.e is the following true ?
$lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)} \neq 0$
and
$lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{f(x)}{h(x)} = 0 $
implies
$lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{g(x)}{h(x)} = 0 $
Thanks
In general, it is not true.
If $\displaystyle \lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$ exists and is not equal to $0$, then it is true. Otherwise, it is not.