Let $(X,x_{0})$ be a topological space and let $(Y,y_{0})$ be another topological space such that for homotopy groups
$\pi_{i}(Y,y_{0}) \cong \pi_{i+1}(X,x_{0})$
for all $i \geq 0$.
Is it then true that $Y \simeq \Omega X$ ?
I feel as if this is false in general, but you might be able to impose some conditions on $X$ and $Y$ to make this true.
(Or there might be some uniqueness of adjoints argument that makes this true in general).
Any help would be much appreciated!
The answer is no in general. A counter example is given by $S^3 \times \mathbb{C}P^\infty$ and $\Omega (S^2)$, by the Hopf fibration they have the shifted homotopy groups you ask for. However, $\Omega (S^3 \times \mathbb{C}P^\infty)=\Omega S^3 \times \Omega \mathbb{C}P^{\infty}$. One can use the Serre spectral sequence to see the cohomologies are not isomorphic.
There is not really a way to make this question have a positive answer, without begging the question. The context you need to answer questions about loop spaces is the notion of $E_n$ structures. The point is that any n-fold loop space has an $E_n$ structure and if two spaces are equivalent as spaces with $E_n$ structures with the additional property their $\pi_0$ forms a group, then these are both n-fold loop spaces of some third space (called the bar construction).
So you could add some of this information to your question and have it be true, but this is simply because for connected spaces looping and bar constructions are inverse. It might be the case that you could try to move the $E_n$ structure from the space to its $\Pi$-algebra and have an interesting question.