In the proof, it says that for disjoint $A$ and $B$, $m^*(A \cup B) = m^*(A) + m^*(B) \implies A$ and $B$ are measurable.
The caratheodory definition of measurable set is that for some $A$, if $m^*(A) = m^*(A \cup B) + m^*(A \setminus B)$, then $B$ is measurable. But I can't see the relation between these two. Could you explain this?
Thank you in advance.

For every pair of disjoint sets $A$ and $B$, assume the following holds:
Now, let $A$ and $B$ be arbitrary sets. Then $A = (A \cap B) \cup (A\setminus B)$ where $A\cap B$ is disjoint from $A\setminus B$.
By our assumption, this means that $m^*(A) = m^*(A\cap B) + m^*(A\setminus B)$, and so by Caratheodory we have that $B$ is measurable since $A$ was arbitrary. Unfortunately, out choice of $B$ was also arbitrary, so every set is measurable!