I am wondering given:
and
is it possible to state:
$$\text{Jdq}_t s_t-\text{dq}_t s_t=\text{dq}_t \log (J) s_t$$
And if it is the case can we show how this argument is done?
I am wondering given:
and
is it possible to state:
$$\text{Jdq}_t s_t-\text{dq}_t s_t=\text{dq}_t \log (J) s_t$$
And if it is the case can we show how this argument is done?
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