Please excuse the non-specific title, this is a rather long problem.
So on our last exam in multivariable calculus, our professor gave us a very lengthy vector manipulation problem as a bonus. Seeing as it's no longer worth any points to me, I was wondering if someone could help me understand how to solve it.
So let $ \vec v_1,\vec v_2,\vec v_3 \in \Bbb R^3$, such that $\vec v_1 \cdot (\vec v_2 \times \vec v_3) \neq 0$
Now define
$$k_1 = \frac{\vec v_2 \times \vec v_3}{\vec v_1 \cdot (\vec v_2 \times \vec v_3)}, k_2 = \frac{\vec v_3 \times \vec v_1}{\vec v_1 \cdot (\vec v_2 \times \vec v_3)}, k_3 = \frac{\vec v_1 \times \vec v_32}{\vec v_1 \cdot (\vec v_2 \times \vec v_3)}$$
We must show:
i) Each $k_i$ is perpendicular to the corresponding $v_j$ where $j \neq i$;
ii) $\vec k_1 \cdot (\vec k_2 \times \vec k_3) = \frac{1}{\vec v_1 \cdot (\vec v_2 \times \vec v_3)}$
The second part seems somewhat straightforward to solve through brute force, but I'm wondering if there's a simpler way. However, I have no idea how to approach the first part; I have no notion of vector division and that seems to be what it's approaching.
Here is a clean way to solve this problem without any brute force, although it might involve more linear algebra than you've seen. Combine the following facts: