Now I know that the fibers of a fibration are homotopy equivalent, but I was wondering if the converse was true if we have the stronger conidition that the fibers are homeomorphic. If a map whose fibers are homeomorphic do we have a fibration, and if we weaken it to just homotopy equivalent are there additional conditions we can give so that the map is a fibration.
2026-03-25 21:22:57.1774473777
Map whose fibers are homotopic/homeomorphic are is a fibration
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