I am trying to determine for which integers $z$ the map $f_z : \mathbb{Z}/48\mathbb{Z} \rightarrow \Bbb{Z}_{36}$ with $f_z(\overline{1}) = x^a$, where $x$ is the generator of $\Bbb{Z}_{36}$, extends to homomorphism. I want to say that $f$ is a homomorphism only if it maps $\overline{1}$ to some generator in $\Bbb{Z}_{36}$. But that would require that something like the following is true:
Let $G$ and $H$ be cyclic groups of order $n$ and $m$, reps., with generators $g$ and $h$, reps. Then $f : G \rightarrow H$ is a homomorphism iff one of the generator in $G$ gets mapped to another in $H$.
Now, I imagine the claim as I presented it isn't true; it certainly isn't articulated very well. So, my question is, is there some theorem like the above that would prove useful for my problem; i.e., what other stipulations would we have to add?
EDIT:
Pmar seems to be claiming that $f_z$ need not map $\overline{1}$ to some generator, yet Bob Wilson's answer here, which has $3$ up-votes mind you, seems to suggest otherwise. Would someone mind addressing this ostensible discrepancy?
If by 'another in H' you mean 'a generator of all of H', then you are correct, the proposition is false. What is true is that the image of any generator of G generates a subgroup of H, but there is no guarantee that the image would generate all of H.
Take your given example: The generator 1 has order 48 in G, so the homomorphic property implies $f(1^{48})$ = $f(1)^{48}$ = 0 in H; but we also have $f(1)^{36}$ = 0 in H; hence $f(1)^{12}$ = 0 in H, so $f(1)$ cannot generate all of H.