Anybody have any insight on how to solve this problem? My friend asked me about it and it's been bothering me for a few days. I tried to approach it by induction (the base case with two people is straightforward, but I got stuck on the inductive step). Anyway, I thought it was a fun problem and was curious how to approach it. Any tips on possible solutions would be lovely!
Some people stand in a circle exchanging objects. Each of them starts with an even number of chocolates - not necessarily the same. Every minute, each of the people passes half their objects to the person to their right. If anyone ends up with an odd number of chocolates, they pick up another object from a jar in the center. Prove that regardless of the initial distribution of chocolates, after a finite number of steps everyone ends up with an equal number of objects.
We can describe a situation by three numbers $(M,m,r)$, where $2M$ is the maximal amount a player has, $m$ is the minimal amount, and $r$ is the number of players with $2m$.
If a player as $2a$ pieces and their left neighbour has $2b$ pieces, in the next round, this player will have $ (2a-a)+b= a+b\le 2M$ pieces. Even if $a+b$ is odd, it is $\le 2M-1$ and so after refill from the jar, it is still $\le 2M$. Likewise, the new amount is $\ge 2m$ with equality if and only if $a=b=m$. We conclude that a situation $(M,m,r)$ turns into $(M',m',r')$ with $m\le m'\le M'\le M$. Moreover, if $m'=m$, then $r'\le r$.
But it cannot happen that $(M',m',r')=(M,m,r)$ unless $M=m$. Indeed, if $m<M$, then there must be some person with $2m$ pieces while their left neighbour has more. Then this person will have $>2m$ pieces in the next round, meaning that either $m'>m$ or at least $r'<r$.
At any rate, if $M>m$, then it takes only finitely mann steps until $M-m$ decreases by at least one. Then still after finitely many steps, we reach $M=m$.