I have a question:
For what positive integers $n$ is $\mathrm{gcd}(n,n+2)=2$. Prove your claim.
Is this correct?:
If $n$ is odd then both $n$ and $n+2$ are odd so the gcd cannot be $2$. So assume that $n$ is even that is $n=2k,\quad k\in\mathbb{N}$ since $n>0$. Using the Euclidean algorithm we get $$ n+2=1\cdot n+2 $$ $$ n=2\cdot k+0 $$ and the last nonzero remainder is $2$ so $(n,n+2)=2$ for all positive even $n$.
Looks solid to me. It's probably also the shortest way to go.
An alternative is to say that $d$ is the common divisor of $n$ and $n+2$, meaning that $n=k\cdot d$ and $n+2=l\cdot d$ for some $k,l$.
Then, $n+2-n = l\cdot d - k\cdot d$ simplifies to $2=(l-k)\cdot d$.
This is only possible if either $d\in \{1,2\}$, proving the only common divisors of $n, n+2$ can be $1$ and $2$.
The, because $n$ and $n+2$ are both even, you can conclude that their greatest common divisor is $2$.