Question: Let $A,B\in Mat_n(F)$ such that $AB=BA.$ Show that
- $r(A)+r(B)\geq r(A+B)+r(AB);$
- $r(A^2)+r(B^2)\geq 2r(AB).$
My work:
- we show that $$\dim\ker A+\dim\ker B\leq \dim\ker (A+B)+\dim\ker AB.$$ By dimension formula, it's equivalent to $$\dim(\ker A+\ker B)+\dim \ker A\cap\ker B\leq\dim\ker(A+B)+\dim\ker AB.$$
- By 1, we have $$\dim\ker(A ^2)+\dim\ker(B^2)\leq \dim\ker(A^2+B^2)+\dim\ker(ABAB).$$ Since $$\dim\mathrm{Im}\ ABAB=\dim\mathrm{Im}\ AB-\dim \ker AB\cap\mathrm{Im}\ AB,$$ then $$\dim\ker ABAB=\dim\ker AB+\dim\ker AB\cap\mathrm{Im}\ AB.$$ If we show that $$\dim\ker (A ^2+B^2)+\dim\ker AB\cap\mathrm{Im}\ AB\leq \dim\ker AB,$$ it's done. But i have no idea about this.
$\newcommand{\b}[1]{\begin{bmatrix}#1\end{bmatrix}}$
When $AB=BA$, it is not necessarily that $r(A^2)+r(B^2)\geq 2r(AB).$
Here is a counterexample.
$$A=\b{0&1&0&0\\0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&1\\0&0&0&0}$$ $$B=\b{0&1&1&0\\0&0&0&1\\0&0&0&1\\0&0&0&0}$$
Then $$A^2=0$$ $$B^2=\b{0&0&0&2\\0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0}$$ $$AB=BA=\b{0&0&0&1\\0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0\\0&0&0&0}$$ We have $$r(A^2)+r(B^2)=0+1=1\lt 2= 2r(AB).$$