Let $p= \begin{pmatrix} x & y \\ z & v \end{pmatrix}\in M_2(\mathbb{C})$ such that $p^2=\overline{p}^t=p$ and $\text{rank}(p)=1$.
Why is $p=\begin{pmatrix} t & l\sqrt{t(1-t)} \\ \overline{l}\sqrt{t(1-t)} & 1-t \end{pmatrix}$ for $l\in S^1$ and $t\in [0,1]$?
I'm stuck with my calculations.
Because $p^2=\overline{p}^t=p$ I obtain:
$x=\overline{x}=x^2+yz$
$v=\overline{v}=v^2+yz$
$y=\overline{z}=xy+yv$
$z=\overline{y}=zx+vz$.
I.e. $x,v\in\mathbb{R}$ and $y=\overline{z}$. Furthermore we have $\text{rank}(p)=\text{trace}(p)=1\Longrightarrow x+v=1$. So we set $x=t\in\mathbb{R}$ and we get $v=1-t$.
Therefore we obtain: $t=t^2+yz$ and $1-t=(1-t)^2+yz$ but I now stuck with my calculations to determine $y$ and $z$ as above. Can you help me?
Hint: Since $y=\overline{z}$, they must both have the same modulus i.e. $y=rl$ and $z=r\overline{l}$ with $r\in \mathbb{R}$ and $l\in S^1$. But both of the last two equations you wrote out rearrange to $yz=t(1-t)$.