If $f(x)$ is a Lebesgue integrable function on $R^n$, then is $E=\{(x,y); |f(x)|>y \}\subset R^{n+1}$ measurable?
For each fixed $y$, $E^y=\{x;(x,y)\in E\}$ is measurable and as y increases, $E^y$ decreases, but I don't know whether it will guarantee measurability or not.
Since you know that if $E $ is measurable, then so is $E \times \Bbb {R} $, you can do the following:
Define $$ F : \Bbb {R}\times \Bbb {R} \to \Bbb {R}, (x,y)\mapsto f (x). $$
Then, for every $M\subset \Bbb {R} $, we have $F^{-1}(M)=f^{-1}(M )\times \Bbb {R} $, from which it easily follows that $F $ is measurable and hence also $|F|$.
But the map $G: \Bbb {R}^n \times \Bbb {R}, (x,y)\mapsto y $ is continuous and hence also measurable. Hence so is $|F|-G $.
But we finally have $$\{(x,y)\mid |f (x)|>y\} = \{(x,y)\mid (|F|-G)(x,y)>0\} = (|F|-G)^{-1}((0,\infty)) , $$ where the set on the right is measurable.
This argument generalises to many different settings, in contrast to the "epigraph" approach. For example if you see interested in the set where $|f (x)|>\sin (y) $.