I came across an old qualifying exam question:
Let $A\subset [0,1)$ be a Lebesgue measurable subset of unit intreval such that $0<\mu(A)<1$. For every $x\in [0,1)$ let $A+x=\{x+y$ mod 1$:y\in A\}$. Prove that there exists $x_0=x_0(A)\in[0,1)$ such that $\mu(A\cap(A+x_0))<\mu(A)$
Intuitively, it seems that if $A$ is a measurable interval then there exist an interval $I$ such that they overlap by more than half. Moreover the intersection $(A\cap(A+x_0))$ would need less intervals to "cover up" than $A$. Hence we have the inequality. But I am having a hard time making this rigorous.
\begin{equation} \begin{split} \int_0^1 \mu(A\cap A+x)dx &= \int_0^1 \int_A \chi_{A+x}\ (y)dydx \\ &= \int_0^1\int_A \chi_A(y-x) dy dx\\ &= \int_A\int_0^1 \chi_A(y-x) dx dy \ \ \ \ \ \ \text{(Fubini's theorem)}\\ &=\int_A \mu(A) dx = \mu(A)^2 <\mu(A) \end{split} \end{equation}
as $0< \mu(A) <1$. Thus there is $x_0\in [0,1]$ so that
$$\mu(A \cap A+x_0) < \mu(A). $$