I think the author of my book has this solution wrong and would like some feedback on my thoughts (see Example 1.4.1).
The solution states that the total energy of the system is represented by the spring, rotation of the wheel, and translation of the wheel, therefore constant total energy E is given by
\begin{align} E = (1/2)mv^2 + (1/2)J\omega^2 + (1/2)kx^2 \end{align}
where $J$ is the inertia of the wheel, equal to $mr^2$, and omega is the angular velocity equal to $v/r$.
I think in this scenario the translational energy and rotational energy are the same quantity -- that is, there cannot be rotation without translation (since he defined "no slipping occurs and no energy is lost at contact"), and vice-versa; or, any time the object is rotating the energy of rotation will be consumed to produce translation, and vice-versa. Thus the equation should be written
\begin{align} E = (1/2)mv^2 + (1/2)kx^2 \end{align}
And the maximum kinetic energy will be
\begin{align} T_{max} = (1/2)m(\omega_n)^2A^2 \end{align}
yielding
\begin{align} \omega_n^2 = k/m \end{align}
Thank you in advance for all responses. This is my first time posting on stack exchange.

The energy of the system at a configuration $(x,\dot{x}, \dot{\theta})$ is given by $E(x,\dot{x}, \dot{\theta}) = {1 \over 2} m \dot{x}^2 + {1 \over 2} J \dot{\theta}^2 + {1 \over 2} k x$.
In this particular example, there is an additional constraint which is that $\dot{x} = r \dot{\theta}$.
When the object rolls, it will 'see' an effective mass of $m+ {J \over r^2}$. That is, it will behave as a single point mass with no inertial component of mass $m+ {J \over r^2}$.
The formula for the resonant frequency follows from the usual formula.
Aside:
Consider two systems of mass $m$, (i) is just a frictionless sliding mass and (ii) is an ideal, non slipping hoop with the mass at any positive radius.
The kinetic energies are (i) ${1 \over 2} m \dot{x}^2$ and (ii) $m \dot{x}^2$ (regardless of radius).