Meromorphic function with poles in $\frac{1}{n}$ of order $n$

941 Views Asked by At

Is there a meromorphic function on $\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}$ which have poles in $z_n=\frac{1}{n}$ of the order $n$?

I have tried something with the theorem of Mittag-Leffler but that didn't help.

Have you an idea?

3

There are 3 best solutions below

3
On BEST ANSWER

Sure: Mittag-Leffler says that there exists a meromorphic function $m(z)\in \mathcal M(\mathbb C^*)$ on $\mathbb C^*=\mathbb C\setminus \{0\}$ with principal part (=polar part) at $\frac 1n$for example equal to, for example, $(z- \frac 1n)^{-n}$ .
Edit Of course we must use a version of Mittag-Leffler valid for an arbitrary domain in $\mathbb C$.
One can find it in Rudin's Real and complex analysis, Theorem 15.13.

But: The function $m(z)$ is guaranteed to have an essential singularity at $z=0$.
In other words it does not extend to a meromorphic function on $\mathbb C$.
Said yet differently, the restriction map $\mathcal M(\mathbb C)\to \mathcal M(\mathbb C^*)$ does not contain $m(z)$ in its image.

Generalizations:
Given an arbitrary open subset $U\subset \mathbb C$, an arbitrary discrete closed subset $D\subset U$ and an arbitrary principal part $m_d(z)$ at each $d\in D$ there exists a meromorphic function $m(z)\in \mathcal M(U)$ with principal part $m_d(z)$ at $d$.
Behnke-Stein proved that this result is still true if $U$ is an abstract, completely arbitrary non-compact Riemann surface.

0
On

Using the Weierstrass factorization theorem, one can construct an entire function $f(z)$ such that $f$ has a zero of order $n$ at each positive integer $n$ (and no other zeros). Then $$ g(z)=\frac{1}{f(\frac{1}{z})}$$ is meromorphic on $\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}$ with a pole of order $n$ at $\frac{1}{n}$ for all $n\geq 1$.

0
On

I'd wager a pint of excellent red ale that the following $f$ does the job:

$$f(z) =\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!(z-1/n)^n}.$$