In my stewarts could book there is a theorem for limits to infinity that states if r>0 is a rational number then $\lim_{x \to +\infty}\frac{1}{x^r}=0$. My question is why does r have to be a rational number for example pi is greater than 0 and obeys this statement?
2026-04-26 00:21:48.1777162908
Method for evaluating limits at infinity
51 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in CALCULUS
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