I have derived the binomial Method of Moments (MoM) estimator for $Binomial(\theta, p)$, where $p$ is known.
Furthermore, I have calculated the variance of my unbias estimator.
Now, I am trying to determine if the MoM estimator is the UMVUE. The approach I'm familiar with is computing the Information $I(\theta)$ and using CR-LB for comparison. However, I can't compute derivatives of a combinatorial term. This leads me to believe that such a question cannot be answered.
Is the UMVUE for $n$ in a Binomial r.v. known? If so, how can I compute it?
Especially in the case where neither $n$ (your $\theta)$ nor $p$ is known, this is a notoriously difficult problem, you might want to look at journal articles retrieved by a Internet search for
estimate binomial n; articles with Olkin or Rubin as co-author may be of particular interest.I will leave the formal discussions of sufficiency, unbiasedness, and UMVUE to you, but the discussion below will show some complications that need to be addressed.
Suppose you have $N$ observations $X_1, X_2, \dots, X_N$ from $\mathsf{Binom}(n, p),$ with $p$ known. Then the method of moments estimator of $n$ is $\bar X/p,$ rounded to the nearest integer.
The rounded MME performs reasonably well for large or moderate $p,$ as illustrated in the simulation below in R, which looks at a million samples of size $N = 100$ from $\mathsf{Binom}(n=20, p = .5).$
Results are better with $p = .9.$ In particular, notice the smaller variance of the MME. [if $p=0.1,$ then the variance of the MME is much larger. (No simulation shown.)]
However, the MME is clearly not always the best estimator of $n.$ When $p$ is large, then the largest number of Successes $X_{N}$ observed out of $N$ observations from $\mathsf{Binom}(n, p)$ may be a better estimator. In particular, here are results from a million samples of size 100 from \mathsf{Binom}(n=20, p=.85), using the maximum observed number of successes. For large $p$ and sufficiently large $N,$ this estimator seldom underestimates $n$ and never overestimates. It's variance is nearly $0,$ but it is not exactly unbiased.