In a multiple choice question, the following is asked :
The limit $$\lim\limits_{x \to 0^+} \displaystyle\int_x^1 \left(1+ \dfrac 1t\right) e^{-\tfrac 1t} dt $$
is equal to :
- $+\infty$
- $-\infty$
- $e^{-1}$
- 0
- 1
My choice went for (3) because the integral is convergent and the integrand is positive and - unless mistaken - it is bounded between $0$ and $\dfrac 2e$.
I would like to know whether what I did is correct and hopefully how to prove that the value of the limit is indeed $\dfrac 1e$
The antiderivative of $$(1+\frac1t)e^{-\frac1t}$$ is $$te^{-\frac1t} + C$$ (used integration by parts, you can differentiate to verify).
Evaluating this expression at $1$ gives $\frac1e$, the limit as $t\rightarrow0^+$ gives $0$, so the limit of the integral is just $\frac1e$, no need for L'Hopital's or any complex limit manipulation.