$$\int_{-1}^{1} \left(\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\arctan{\frac1x}\right) \, \mathrm{d}x$$
Since integration cancels the differentiation, we need $\arctan{(1)} - \arctan{(-1)}$, that is $\pi/2$
But in the book the answer is $-\pi/2$ , so I think its a mistake
To avoid the problem for $x=0$, note that the following holds
then
$$\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{d}{dx}\arctan(1/x) dx =\int_{0}^{1} \frac{d}{dx}\arctan(1/x) dx +\int_{-1}^{0} \frac{d}{dx}\arctan(1/x) dx \\=-\int_{0}^{1} \frac{d}{dx}\arctan(x) dx -\int_{-1}^{0} \frac{d}{dx}\arctan(x) dx $$