Let $T$ be a complete theory and $\mathfrak{U}$ a monster model, and $C$ a small parameter set. A $C$-indiscernible sequence $\mathcal{I}=(a_i)_{i\in I}$ is $C$-independent if $a_i\perp^f_C \{a_j:j<i\}$ for each $i\in I$. On the other hand, $\mathcal{I}$ is a $C$-Morley sequence if there exists a $C$-invariant global type $p(x)\in S(\mathfrak{U})$ such that $$\operatorname{tp}(a_{i_1},\dots,a_{i_n}/C)\subseteq\underbrace{p\otimes\dots\otimes p}_{n \text{ times}},$$ ie such that each $a_{i_k}$ realizes $p|_{Ca_{i_1}\dots a_{i_{k-1}}}$, for every $i_1<\dots<i_n\in I$. (In this latter case, say that $\mathcal{I}$ is "generated" by $p$.) Because a $C$-invariant type cannot fork over $C$, it is the case that any $C$-Morley sequence will also be $C$-independent. I am wondering about when the converse of this fact holds:
Question: In what circumstances is a $C$-indiscernible and $C$-independent sequence also a $C$-Morley sequence?
Here are two examples. Let $T$ be the theory of the random graph, say with the symbol $R$ for adjacency:
First, thanks to James Hanson for the following argument that the implication does hold when $\mathcal{I}$ is a sequence of elements; suppose $\mathcal{I}$ is a (non-constant) $C$-indiscernible and $C$-independent sequence of elements of $\mathfrak{U}$. Let $C_0=\{c\in C:cRa_0\}$. We have two cases; if $\mathfrak{U}\models a_0 Ra_1$, then let $p(x)$ be the unique unrealized global type containing $$\{\neg(xRc):c\in C\setminus C_0\}\cup\{xRc:c\in(\mathfrak{U}\setminus C)\cup C_0\}.$$ If instead $\mathfrak{U}\models\neg(a_0 Ra_1)$, then let $p(x)$ be the unique unrealized global type containing $$\{\neg(xRc):c\in \mathfrak{U}\setminus C_0\}\cup\{xRc:c\in C_0\}.$$ In either case, $p$ is $C$-invariant, and it generates $\mathcal{I}$, whence $\mathcal{I}$ is indeed a $C$-Morley sequence.
On the other hand, if I'm not mistaken, here is an example showing that the implication does not hold for arbitrary sequences in $T$. Let $\mathcal{I}=(a_ib_i)_{i\in\omega}$ be any indiscernible sequence of $2$-tuples such that (i) $\{a_i,b_i\}$ and $\{a_j,b_j\}$ are disjoint for each $i\neq j$, and (ii) $\mathfrak{U}\models a_{i+1}Ra_i$ and $\mathfrak{U}\models\neg(a_{i+1}Rb_i)$ for each $i\in\omega$. By condition (i), and the characterization of forking in $T$, $\mathcal{I}$ is $\varnothing$-independent. But $\mathcal{I}$ is not generated by any $\varnothing$-invariant type $p(xy)$; indeed, suppose $p(xy)$ generates $\mathcal{I}$. Since $a_1b_1$ realizes $p|_{a_0b_0}$, $p$ must contain the formulas $xRa_0$ and $\neg(xRb_0)$. But there is an automorphism of $\mathfrak{U}$ swapping $a_0$ and $b_0$, so $p$ is indeed not $\varnothing$-invariant.
As a smaller question, does the counterexample above look right? For the main question, if there is not much to be said in general, any references that have investigated this question in a specific context would be much appreciated. I am particularly interested in whether this implication holds generally in NIP theories.
The counterexample is fine, but basically the same example works for the theory of a single equivalence relation with two classes, both infinite (which is $\aleph_0$-stable, not only NIP): if $(a_n)_n$ is an injective sequence of elements in one class and $(b_n)_n$ is an injective sequence in the other class, then the sequence $(a_nb_n)_n$ is indiscernible and independent, but not a Morley sequence over $\emptyset$ for the same reason as in your example.
On the other hand, I think in this example also you have that indiscernible independent sequences over models (or any set containing $\operatorname{acl}^{\mathrm{eq}}(\emptyset)$) is a Morley sequence. The random graph example shows that this is not true even over models. So I think there is a chance of a positive result if besides tameness, you also assume that the base is either a model or $\operatorname{acl}^{\mathrm{eq}}$-closed.