Let $V$ and $W$ be linear spaces, $D$ be a subspace of $V$, and $f:D\to W$ be a linear map.
Why do functional analysts call $f$ an operator on $V$ instead of a linear map on $D$?
2026-03-25 17:52:53.1774461173
Motivation of operators
80 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in FUNCTIONAL-ANALYSIS
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