Moving from general to specific solution in separation of variables PDE

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I'm just playing around with separation of variables for a simple 1D diffusion equation for $c(x,t)$, of the form $c_{t} = Dc_{xx}$ where $D$ is a diffusion constant. At some initial time, concentration of a drug is$f(x) = 10e^{-kx}$. Now, if the 1D line is of length $L$, then my understanding is to confine the drug to that length, I should use Neumann boundary conditions so that $c_{x}(0,t) = c_{x}(L,t) = 0 $ to denote there is no flow through the boundaries.

Using a separation of variables on this, I get a general solution of the form

$$c = A_{n} e^{-\frac{Dn^2\pi^2 t}{L^2}}\cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right)$$.

If I remember correctly, I can use a fourier sine series to express $A_{n}$ from the initial condition, and I then get

$$A_{n} = \frac{2}{L}\int_{0}^L \sin{\frac{n\pi x}{L}}10e^{-kx} = \frac{20n\pi(1 + e^{-kL})}{k^2l^2 + n^2 \pi^2 }$$

So my specific solution should be (If I've done everything right)

$$c(x,t) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{20n\pi(1 + e^{-kL})}{k^2l^2 + n^2 \pi^2}e^{-\frac{Dn^2\pi^2 t}{L^2}}\cos\left(\frac{n\pi x}{L}\right) $$

I'm currently trying to plot this, and getting some strange results. My physical interpretation is that initially where is high concentration at $x=0$ which diffuses along the length, eventually reaching some equilibrium concentration; I could have thought the no-flux boundary conditions mean that net amount is trapped in the length of the tube? Is this correct?

If this is correct, is my use of sine series to find $A_{n}$ appropriate? It's been a long time since I've seen it and my logic on how this step is justified is kind of hazy, so would be grateful if anyone could set me right..

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The solution will be $$ c = A_0+\sum_{n=1}^\infty A_{n} e^{-\tfrac{Dn^2\pi^2 t}{L^2}}\cos\frac{n\pi x}{L}. $$ At $t=0$ you want $$ f(x)=10\,e^{-kx}=A_0+\sum_{n=1}^\infty A_{n} \cos\frac{n\pi x}{L},\quad 0\le x\le L. $$ The coefficients are given by $$\begin{align} A_0&=\frac1L\int_0^Lf(x)\,dx\\ A_n&=\frac{2}{L}\int_{0}^L f(x)\,\cos\frac{n\pi x}{L}\,dx,\quad n>0. \end{align}$$ Observe that we use $\cos$ and not $\sin$.