I recently saw this: ($x\in\mathbb{C}$)
- $$x^2+x+1=0,x\neq0,\pm1$$
- $$x+1+\frac{1}{x}=0$$ Plugging (2) into (1) we get $x^2-\frac{1}{x}=0$ so $x=1$
Why does this happen? I know that eq. (1) has solutions $x=\frac{-1\pm\sqrt{-3}}{2}$, and that these still are solutions for eq. (2), but where is the extra solution $x=1$ coming from? (And why is that step not valid? Is it like squaring both sides?)
In effect, you have taken the equation $$x^2+x+1=0,$$ divided by $x$ to get $$x+1+\frac1x=0$$ and then multiplied by $x-1$ to get $$x^2-\frac1x=0.$$ The extraneous root $1$ is the solution of $x-1=0$, and $x-1$ is the factor you multiplied by.