If I have $x^{\lfloor\frac{c}{a-b}\rfloor}$ is this equivalent to $(x^{\lfloor\frac{1}{a-b}\rfloor})^{\lfloor c \rfloor}$ if a,b,c are all integers and x is between 0 and 1?
I'm concerned with this expression in the context of a geometric series. Normally if we have $\sum_{i=0}^{\infty} r^{q}$ with |r| < 1 then this sum converges to $\frac{1}{1-q}$. So I'm wondering if I can do something like $\sum_{i=0}^{\infty} (x^{\lfloor\frac{1}{a-b}\rfloor})^{\lfloor i \rfloor}$
It seems that the answer is no, because we could have something like $\frac{2}{3}$ which is .75 but the floor is 0. Splitting it up we would end up with .75
No. Witness:
$$\left\lfloor \tfrac{4}{5-2}\right\rfloor = 1 \\ \lfloor 4\rfloor\left\lfloor \tfrac 1{5-2} \right\rfloor=0$$