Let $U \subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ be an open bounded set. Set $L^p=L^p(U)$.
Let $f \in L^p$, and let $g_n \in L^p$, $g_n \to 0$ in $L^p$. Is it true that $fg_n \to 0$ in $L^p$? Is it even true that $fg_n \in L^p$ for sufficiently large $n$?
I am quite sure the answer is negative. Any ideas for counter-examples?
Let $n=1,p=1,U=(0,1),f(x)=x^{q}, g_n(x)=\frac 1 n x^{q}$ where $-1<q<-\frac 1 2$. Then $fg_n \notin L^{1}$ for any $n$ even though $f,g_n \in L^{1}$ for all $n$ and $\|g_n\|_1 \to 0$ .