Let $R$ be a ring, $A$ be an $R$-module, and $B, C$ be submodules such that $A = B \oplus C$. Then we can say that $\dfrac{A}{B} = \dfrac{B \oplus C}{B} \cong \dfrac{C}{B \cap C} = \dfrac{C}{0} \cong C$ (using the second isomorphism theorem). My question is: is the converse true?
If we have $\dfrac{A}{B} \cong C$, can we somehow deduce that $A \cong B \oplus C$?
While this is true for vector spaces (that is, if your ring $R$ is a field), the property you consider is false in general. For instance, taking $R=\mathbb{Z}$, $A=R$ and $B=2\mathbb{Z}$, you get that the quotient is the torsion group $C=\mathbb{Z}/2\mathbb{Z}$. No subgroup of $\mathbb{Z}$ can be isomorphic to $C$, so $A$ is not isomorphic to $B\oplus C$.
Rings having the property you consider are called semisimple rings.