In an article on Wikipedia there is a claim of a proof that it don't exist infinitely many $n\in\mathbb N$ such that both $n$ and $n^2+2$ are primes. I don't understand that and would be pleased if someone could explain.
Okay, thank you, but it is the text in that section that I don't understand. This is supposed to have something to do with integer-valued polynomials and fixed prime divisors.
Now I finally understand what Wikipedia was trying to bring about. The subring of all integer-valued polynomials with rational coefficients is a free Abelian group where all elements $f$ can be uniquely expressed as linear combinations of the (in this ring) irreducible polynomials
$\displaystyle \left( \begin{matrix} X \\ k \\ \end{matrix}\right)= \frac{X(X-1)(X-2)\cdots(X-k+1)}{k!}$
where $c_0=f(0)$ and $\displaystyle c_k=f(k)-\sum_{i=0}^{k-1}c_i {k\choose i}$.
Now $|\gcd(c_0,\dots,c_n)|$ is the greatest number that divides all outputs $f(x)$ for $x\in\mathbb Z$.
In the example $x(x^2+2)$: $\;c_0=0,\;c_1=3,\;c_2=6,\;c_3=6$.