I am a self-learner and the book that I am engaged in gave me some basics of Riemann sums but I see that they are not enough to solve most of the problems related to Riemann sums. Can someone give me a little hand as to why $1/n$ always means that we are looking for the integral from $0$ to $1$ (Yes I know that $(b-a)$ here gives $1$ but is not it possible to consider the range not from $0$ to $1$ but from $5$ to $6$ as well?)?
Generally, why does this condition below makes sense?
$$\sum_{i=1}^n\frac{1}{n}f\left(\frac{i}{n}\right)\to\int_0^1f(x)dx$$
The $\dfrac1n$ indeed only tells you that $a$ and $b$ are one unit apart. So, just by looking at $\dfrac1n$, you can't be sure if the interval is $[0,1]$ or $[5,6]$ (to use your example). You also need to look at the $f\left(\dfrac in\right)$. Looking at this tells you your interval starts at $0$. If it started at $5$, then you would have $f\left(5 + \dfrac in\right)$.
In general, you'll have $f\left(a + \dfrac{b-a}n i\right)$ for the interval $[a,b]$ with $n$ subintervals of equal length. And since the specific problem you posted has $f\left(\dfrac in\right)$, then we can write this as $f\left(\dfrac in\right) = f\left(0 + \dfrac in\right)$, giving us $a = 0$.