In reviewing a paper, I've come across a simplification the looks fishy to me, but I'm having a hard time checking it. I pulled out my old CRC handbook, but neither that nor Google are proving to be very helpful. The author writes the following:
$ \begin{align} T &= \sum_{n=0}^\infty (n + 1) T_1 [e^{-n \lambda_1 T_1} - e^{-(n+1) \lambda_1 T_1}] \\ &= \sum_{n=0}^\infty T_1 e^{-n \lambda_1 T_1} ~~~~~~ (really?) \\ &= \frac{T_1}{1 - e^{-\lambda_1 T_1}} \end{align} $
Can anybody help confirm that the simplification above really is valid?
I agree with the result, and you can see it immediately, without doing any summation, by comparing
$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} (n+1) e^{-(n+1) \lambda_1 T_1} $$
and
$$\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} n e^{-n \lambda_1 T_1} $$
These are the same thing; just one is index shifted from the other by $1$. Subtracting these leaves you with the result.