In logic, when I want to negate the formula
$$\forall x \forall y( F(y) \land A(y) \to \neg G(x,y))$$
what is the correct equivalent? Intuitively, I think it gives
$$\exists x \forall y (F(y) \land A(y) \land G(x,y))$$
but I'm not to sure about it.
2026-03-31 20:04:35.1774987475
Negation of double universal quantifications
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