Let $V$ be a vector space over $F$, we say $Q:V\to F$ is a quadratic form if
- $Q(\lambda v)=\lambda^2Q(v)$, and
- the map $B:V\times V\to F$ defined by $B(u,v)=Q(u+v)-Q(u)-Q(v)$ is bilinear
I'd like to show that if $B$ is non-degenerate, then $\{x\in V\mid Q(x)=0\}=\{0\}$, but I'm kind of stuck. The problem is that $B$ is not necessarily an inner product.
Note: The bilinear map $B$ is called non-degenerate if $B(u,V)=0\implies u=0$
$V=\mathbb{F}^2$, $Q(\vec{x})=x_1x_2$, $B(\vec{x},\vec{y})=x_1y_2+x_2y_1$ is a counterexample, where $\vec{x}= {{x_1}\choose{x_2}}, \vec{y}= {{y_1}\choose{y_2}}.$