given monster model of $\mathcal{M}\models T$ in $\mathcal{L}$, $p\in S_n(A)$ and $p\subseteq q\in S_n(B)$ where $A\subseteq B$, $q$ does not fork over $A$ iff $MR(p)=MR(q)$(MR : morley rank).
$\leftarrow$ is easy to prove by the statement "if $q$ forks over A then $MR(q)< MR(p)$." I saw proof of $\rightarrow$ which premises that both concepts(nonforking extension and same morley rank) satisfy some unique properties like invariance under automorphism, local character, transitivity, etc. I just want to know whether some simple direct proof exists. What I tried was zorn's lemma for $P=\{q'\mid p\subseteq q'\text{(partial) type in $\mathcal{L_B}$}, MR(p)=MR(q'), q' \text{ does not fork over A}\}$ but failed to show maximal element is complete type in $S_n(B)$.
The $\Leftarrow$ direction is only true if we assume that $\text{MR}(p)<\infty$. It's easy to come up with examples where $q$ is a forking extension of $p$, but $\text{MR}(q) = \text{MR}(p) = \infty$.
So you'll usually find this statement proven under the assumption that $T$ is totally transcendental ($\omega$-stable), so every type has an ordinal-valued Morley rank. But it's interesting to ask to what extent it's true in a general theory.
There's a very simple argument for the $\Rightarrow$ direction, assuming $p$ is stationary and has ordinal-valued Morley rank.
Claim: Let $p(x)\in S_x(A)$ be a stationary type with $\text{MR}(p) < \infty$, and suppose $p(x)\subseteq q(x)\in S_x(B)$ and $q$ does not fork over $A$. Then $\text{MR}(p) = \text{MR}(q)$.
Proof: Let $q'(x)\in S_x(B)$ be such that $p(x)\subseteq q'(x)$ and $\text{MR}(q') = \text{MR}(p)$. By the $\Leftarrow$ direction (this is where we use $\text{MR}(p)<\infty$), $q'$ does not fork over $A$. But since $p$ is stationary, it has a unique non-forking extension to a type over $B$. It follows that $q' = q$ and $\text{MR}(p) = \text{MR}(q)$.
Ok, but we want the statement for all types, not just stationary ones. That is, we want to prove
Theorem: Let $p(x)\in S_x(A)$ be a type with $\text{MR}(p)<\infty$, and suppose $q(x)$ is a non-forking extension of $p(x)$. Then $\text{MR}(p) = \text{MR}(q)$.
Here's a plan for proving this:
Finally, observe that the proof above really uses our assumption that $p$ has ordinal-valued Morley rank. This raises the following questions, to which I don't know the answer:
Edit: Pierre Simon has given a negative answer to this question on MathOveflow.