Suppose $f$ is entire with finitely many zeros. Assume $f$ is not a polynomial. Let $m(r) = \inf_{|z| = r} |f(z)|$. I want to show that $$\lim_{r \rightarrow \infty} m(r) =0.$$ I want to note that a previous problem required me to prove that the function $M_f(r) = \sup_{|z|=r} |f(z)|$ is a non-decreasing function of $r$ (should be true for any entire function).
A hint I was given for this problem was to factor out the zeros to obtain a non-vanishing entire function $g$. Then supposing that $m(r)$ does not go to zero, I should try to estimate $m(r)$ using $M_{1/g}(r)$ and show that $1/g$ is a polynomial.
My current progress so far is that I can write $f(z) = g(z) \prod_{i=1}^k (z-z_i)^k$ where $z_1, \ldots, z_k$ are the finitely many zeros of $f$, the $k_i$ are the respective orders of the zeros, and $g(z)$ is entire and non-vanishing. Then analyzing $M_{1/g}(r)$, we have for large enough $r$ so that $f(z) \neq 0$, $$ M_{1/g}(r) = \sup_{|z|=r} \frac{1}{|g(z)|} = \sup_{|z|=r} \frac{\prod_{i=1}^k |z-z_i|^k}{|f(z)|} \leq \frac{\sup_{|z|=r}\prod_{i=1}^k |z-z_i|^k}{\inf_{|z|=r}|f(z)|} = \frac{\sup_{|z|=r}\prod_{i=1}^k |z-z_i|^k}{m(r)}. $$ So rearranging gives us $$ m(r) \leq \frac{\sup_{|z|=r}\prod_{i=1}^k |z-z_i|^k}{M_{1/g}(r)}. $$ From here, I'm not sure how to make use the assumption that $m(r)$ does not go to zero and how to show $1/g$ is a polynomial. Furthermore, I'm not sure how that leads to contradiction. I would appreciate any hints.
Choose $R > 0$ so large that all zeros of $f$ are contained in $|z| < R$, so that $1/f$ is holomorphic for $|z| > R$. If $m(r)$ does not converge to zero then there is a sequence $$ R < r_1 < r_2 < r_3 < \cdots $$ with $r_n \to \infty$ and a constant $\epsilon > 0$ such that $m(r_n) \ge \epsilon$. Then $$ M_{1/f} (r_n) \le \frac{1}{\epsilon} $$ for all $n$, and since $1/f$ is holomorphic for $|z| > R$ it follows by the maximum modulus principle that $$ \frac{1}{|f(z)|} \le \frac{1}{\epsilon} \text{ for } |z| \ge r_1 \, . $$ So $1/f$ can not have a pole or an essential singularity at $\infty$ (the latter is excluded by the Casorati–Weierstrass theorem, one can also use Riemann's theorem on removable singularities here).
It follows that $1/f$ has a removable singularity at $\infty$, so that $f$ has a removable singularity or a pole at $\infty$, and that means that $f$ is a polynomial.