Let R be a commutative ring with $1_R$.
Then I'd like to prove the equivalence between those statements, particularly the point from $(ii) \to (iii)$ :
(i) all non units of R are contained in some ideal M $\ne R$
(ii) the set of all non units of R forms an ideal of R
(iii) for any r,s $\in$ R, if $r+s = 1$ then one of r or s in a unit in R
Following is what I've tried:
To use contradiction, suppose $r$ and $s$ both are non-unit in $R$.
Since $r, s$ both are non-unit they are in an ideal which is set of all non-units in $R$ (Let's call it $M$).
then by definition of ideal, $r\cdot s = s\cdot r\in M$.
I can't figure out where to go further from this point.. any hint to proceed?
How to prove $(ii) \Rightarrow (iii)$:
Let $r,s\in R$ be non units such that $r+s=1$. Then (as the non units form an ideal) we have that $r+s=1$ is also a non unit. This means, $1$ is a non unit, which is a contradiction.
I think the easiest way to prove the equivalence of the three statements is to prove $(i) \Rightarrow (iii) \Rightarrow (ii) \Rightarrow (i)$.
$(i) \Rightarrow (iii)$: Assume by contradicton that there exists $r,s\in R$ non units such that $r+s=1$. We know that $r,s\in M$ and $M$ is an ideal, hence, $1=r+s\in M$, which contradicts $M\neq R$.
$(iii) \Rightarrow (ii)$: Take $r,s\in R$ non units and assume by contradiciton that $r+s$ is a unit. Then there exists a unit $t\in R$ such that $t(r+s)=1$. However, then $tr+ts=1$. By (iii) you have that either $tr$ or $ts$ is a unit. Multiply with $t^{-1}$ and get that either $r$ or $s$ is a unit, which is a contradiction.
$(ii) \Rightarrow (i)$: Take $M$ equal the non units, by $(ii)$ this is an ideal and as $1\notin M$, we also have $M\neq R$.