I am trying to prove the following:
Let $P$ be a nonabelian group of order $p^3$ where $p$ is an odd prime and assume that $P$ has exponent $p$. Then $\text{Out}(P) \cong GL_2(p)$.
My teacher have tried to give me an idea of how we can look at $P$ - as a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $(C_p\times C_p) \rtimes GL_2(p)$. The reasoning is as follows (and I don't fully understand every step, but you will see that):
Since $P$ has exponent $p$, we know that every nontrivial element of $P$ has order $p$. We know that $Z(P)\neq 1$ since $P$ is a $p$-group, and since $P$ is nonabelian we know that $Z(P)\neq P$. If we assume that $\vert Z(P)\vert = p^2$ then $G/Z(G)$ is cyclic making $G$ abelian, so we conclude that $\vert Z(P)\vert = p$.
Now let $x\in P\backslash Z(P)$ and set $U = Z(P) \langle x\rangle$ Then $U \cong C_p \times C_p$.
First question: How do I know that $Z(P) \langle x\rangle \cong C_p \times C_p$. I mean, why is $Z(P)\cap \langle x\rangle = 1$ and how do I know that $Z(P)\langle x\rangle$ is not cyclic?
Ok, well $U$ has index $p$ in $P$ and is thus a normal and maximal subgroup of $P$. Let $y\in P\backslash U$. Then $P = U \rtimes \langle y\rangle$.
Second question: How do I know this? I mean, I know that $U$ is a normal and maximal subgroup of $P$ and $y\notin U$, so $U \langle y\rangle$ is a subgroup of $P$ containing $U$ properly, ergo $U \langle y\rangle = P$. But why is $U \langle y\rangle = U \rtimes \langle y\rangle$?
Proceeding, I realize that $\text{Aut}(U) \cong GL_2(p)$, so $\vert \text{Aut}(U) \vert = p(p-1)(p^2-1)$, so a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $U$ has order $p$. And therefore, we can see $P$ as a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $U\rtimes GL_2(p)$.
Third question: How do I get that $P$ is a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $U\rtimes GL_2(p)$ from the reasoning above?
And
Final question: How can I use this knowledge to prove that $\text{Out}(P) \cong GL_2(p)$?
I know this is a lot, but just a little help is appreciated!
The fact is that there's just one such a group. And it is $\{A \in GL_3(\mathbb{F}_p)| a_{i,j}=0, i<j, a_{i,i}=1\}$. This group works because of the Frobenius and because p is at least 3(as the maximum order of nilpotence of those matrices minus Id).
Now consider the following abstract group given by generator and relations: $G=\{x,y,z|x^p=y^p=z^p=1,xy=yx,zx=xz,yz=zyx\}$. Using the relations you find that this group has order at most $p^3$, since the relations immediately implies that you can write any element as $x^ay^bz^c,0 \leq a,b,c \leq p-1$.
Now take any non abelian group H of order $p^3$ with exponent p. Take two non central element y',z', since $G/H \simeq (\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})^2$,you can choose them as independent vectors in the quotient,so you have a relation $y'z'=z'y'x'$ with x' a central element not 1(otherwise H is abelian), and so a generator of the center. So consider the map $G \to H$ that sends $x \to x',y \to y',z \to z'$. Since the relation are preserved this extends uniquely to a surjective group homomorphism. So since $|G| \leq p^3$ but the map is surjective, we conclude that if there exists such H, then $|G|=p^3$ and moreover any group of order $p^3$ non abelian and of exponent p is isomorphic to G. But since we have exibithed such a group we have that it is the only one up to isomorphism and we have also a presentation by generator and relations.
Now given that your group has the presentation of G, the thesis follows immediately: $G/Z(G) \simeq (\mathbb{Z}/p\mathbb{Z})^2$. So any automorphism gives an automorphism of the quotient, so you get a map $Aut(G) \to GL_2(\mathbb{F}_p)$. Now this map factors trough inner automorphisms, and gives you your isomomorphism. Indeed, the image has $(p^2-1)(p^2-p)$. It's easy to show that the map is surjective. And you can also prove that the number of automorphism is at most $p^2(p^2-1)(p^2-p)$. So the kernel has to be exactly the inner automorphisms. And you get an isomorphism between $Out(G)$ and $GL_2(\mathbb{F}_p)$.