I know that there exist functions such that no computer program can, given arbitrary input, produce the correct function value. There is nothing, however which would prohibit us from knowing the function value for certain specific inputs.
Suppose we have an uncomputable function $f$ defined on N and an infinite sequence of programs $p_1,p_2,p_3,..$ such that $p_n$ computes $f(n)$ no matter what it is given as input.
Since we could use this infinite sequence of programs to compute the function value for an arbitrary input, I am led to believe this sequence of programs cannot exist.
Thus, for any uncomputable function there must exist a particular element in the domain of the function such that its function value cannot ever be computed.
Is my reasoning valid?
No. For example, there are uncomputable functions taking values in $\{0,1\}$ (which might e.g. represent "no" and "yes"). Each program $p_n$ is very simple, in fact each is one of two possible programs: one that just prints "$0$", another that just prints "$1$". The sequence $p_n$ certainly exists, we just don't happen to know it, i.e. for some $n$ we don't know whether the answer is $0$ or $1$.