There is a lemma in my lecture notes that states
Lemma. Let $K$ be a number field and let $\mathfrak{a}$ be a non-zero ideal of $\mathcal{O}_{K}$. Let $A = \mathrm{Norm}(\mathfrak{a})$. Then $A \in \mathfrak{a}$.
Proof. By definition, $A = \mathrm{Norm}(\mathfrak{a}) = \#\mathcal{O}_{K}/\mathfrak{a}$. By Lagrange's Theorem, $A \cdot (1 + \mathfrak{a}) = 0 + \mathfrak{a}$ in $\mathcal{O}_{K}/\mathfrak{a}$. Thus $A \in \mathfrak{a}$.$\hspace{295pt}\square$
I'm not sure how Lagrange's Theorem is being used here.
I know that $\mathcal{O}_{K}/\mathfrak{a}$ is the set of additive cosets of $\mathfrak{a}$, so that $$ \mathcal{O}_{K}/\mathfrak{a} = \left\{ \mathfrak{a}, 1 + \mathfrak{a}, \ldots, r + \mathfrak{a} \right\} $$ which has $A$ elements in it, each of which have the same size. I thought that $\mathfrak{a} = 0 + \mathfrak{a}$ since $0$ is the additive identity, but I'm not sure why we multiply $A$ by the ideal coset $(1 + \mathfrak{a})$, nor why that equals $0 + \mathfrak{a}$, nor why this implies that $A \in \mathfrak{a}$.
Lagrange's theorem says that, if $g\in G$, a group, then $g^{|G|}=e$, right? In additive notation, this is written: $|G|\cdot g = 0$.
Thus, take for $g$ the coset $(1+\mathfrak{a})$, which is an element of the quotient ring, which is an additive group. Then for $|G|$, we have $A$, and the result is what you're looking for.