Given $G=G_1 \rtimes G_2$, so that $\rtimes$ is a semi direct product.
(1) Is it always true that $G/G_1=G_2$ as a quotient group?
(2) Are there occasions that $G/G_2$ makes sense?
Given $G=G_1 \rtimes G_2$, so that $\rtimes$ is a semi direct product.
(1) Is it always true that $G/G_1=G_2$ as a quotient group?
(2) Are there occasions that $G/G_2$ makes sense?
Yes.
If and only if $G_2$ is normal (assuming you are identifying $G_2$ with the subgroup $\{e_1\}\rtimes G_2$), thus if and only if the semidirect product is actually a direct product.