smart guys! I am studying Mathematical Analysis by Rudin and got stuck with the proof “compact set is closed”. The particular thing that puzzles me is: There is an intersection of a finite number of neighborhoods of q within 1/2d(p,q). I do not get why this intersection exists, or to put it differently, cannot be a null set, why it should necessarily contain elements. Or it does not distort the logic of the proof in general? Thanks for any help in advance.
Nuances of the “compact set is closed” proof
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On
Rudin is taking it for granted that $U_{q_i}= B_{r_i}(p) = \{x\in X| d(p,x)< r_i\}$ are neighborhoods centered at $p$[1] then any finite intersection $U_{q_1} \cap U_{q_2} \cap ... \cap U_{q_n}= B_{r_1}(p) \cap B_{r_2} (p)\cap .....\cap B_{r_n} (p)$ will itself be a neighborhood centered at $p$ with a radius equal to the least radius of $\{r_1,..., r_n\}$. That is $ B_{r_1}(p) \cap B_{r_2} (p)\cap .....\cap B_{r_n} (p)=B_{\min r_i}(p)$ and that $B_{\min r_i}(p)$ is not empty because it contains $p$.
It's easy to prove this claim.
If $\{r_1,....,r_n\}$ are a finite set of strictly positive values then there exist some least element, call it $\min r$.
If $x \in B_{r_1}(p) \cap B_{r_2} (p)\cap .....\cap B_{r_n} (p)$ then $x \in B_{r_i}(p)$ for all $r_i$ and in particular $x \in B_{\min r}(p)$ so $B_{r_1}(p) \cap B_{r_2} (p)\cap .....\cap B_{r_n} (p)\subset B_{\min r}(p)$.
And if $x\in B_{\min r}(p)$ then $d(x,p)< \min r \le r_i$ for all $r_i$ so $x\in B_{r_i}(p)$ for all $B_{r_i}(p)$ so $x \in B_{r_1}(p) \cap B_{r_2} (p)\cap .....\cap B_{r_n} (p)$. So $B_{\min r}(p) \subset B_{r_1}(p) \cap B_{r_2} (p)\cap .....\cap B_{r_n} (p)$.
So $B_{r_1}(p) \cap B_{r_2} (p)\cap .....\cap B_{r_n} (p)= B_{\min r}(p)$.
[1]Rudin defines "neighborhood" as an "open ball" with a center point $p$ and a radius $r_i$ and so the "neighborhood" at $p$ with radius, $r$, is $\{x\in X|d(x,p) < r\}$.
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Rudin's actual proof is subtle.
Let $K$ be a compact set. He proves $K$ is closed be proving $K^c$ is open.
He lets $p \not \in K$.
Now for any $q\in K$ then $d(q,p) > 0$ and we can find a radius $r_q < \frac 12d(q,p)$ and let $W_q = B_{r_q}(q)$. If we do this for all $q\in K$ then $q \in W_q$ and so $K \subset \cup_{q\in K} W_q$. So $\{W_q|q\in K\}$ is an open cover of $K$.
$K$ is compact so it has a finite subcover $W_{q_1},W_{q_2}...., W_{q_n}$ and $K \subset \cup W_{q_i} = W$.
For these finite number of points $q_i$ we can find $U_{q_i}$ that are neighborhoods of $p$ with radius $r_{q_i} < \frac 12 d(q_i, p)$.
Then the intersection of the $U_{q_i}$ is $B_{\min r_{q_i}} (p)$. If $y\in K \subset W=\subset W_{q_i}$ then $y \in W_{q_j}$ for some $W_{q_j}$ sp $d(q_j,y) < r_j < \frac 12 d(q_j,p)$
But then $d(q_j,y) + d(y,p) \ge d(q_j, p)$ so $d(y,p) \ge d(q_j,p)-d(q_j,y) \ge d(q_j,p)-d(q_j,p)=\frac 12d(d_j,p) > r_j \ge \min r_{q_i}$.
So $y \not \in B_{\min r_{q_i}}(p)$ for any $y \in K$
Co $B_{\min r_{q_i}}(p) \subset K^c$.
So $K^c$ is open.
So $K$ is closed.
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On
I believe that this is a theorem where using the metric is more confusing than helpful.
The key point is that a metric space is Hausdorff. Suppose $C$ is a compact subset of the Hausdorff topological space $X$ and suppose $x\notin C$.
For each $y\in C$, choose an open set $U_y$ and an open set $V_x$ such that
- $y\in U_y$;
- $x\in V_y$;
- $U_y\cap V_y$.
This is guaranteed by the Hausdorff hypothesis.
Then $(U_y)_{y\in C}$ is an open cover of $C$ and therefore we have $$ C\subseteq \bigcup_{k=1}^n U_{y_k} $$ for some $y_1,y_2,\dots,y_n\in C$. Then $$ V=\bigcap_{k=1}^n V_{y_k} $$ is an open neighborhood of $x$ and $V\cap C=\emptyset$. Therefore $x\notin\bar{C}$ and so $C$ is closed.
What's the path with metric spaces? Our $U_y$ will be of the form $B(y,r_y)$ (open ball centered at $y$, with radius $r_y$) and $V_y=B(x,r_y)$, where you can take $r_y=d(x,y)/2$. By the triangle inequality, $B(y,r_y)\cap B(x,r_y)=\emptyset$.
One can choose the finite set $\{y_1,y_2,\dots,y_n\}$ as before and the point is that $$ \bigcap_{k=1}^n B(x,r_{y_k}) $$ is not necessarily an open ball centered at $x$, but it surely contains one, for instance $B(x,r)$, where $r=\min\{r_{y_1},r_{y_2},\dots,r_{y_n}\}$. Then, as before, $B(x,r)\cap C=\emptyset$.
If $U_1, \dots, U_n$ are neighborhoods of $q$, there exists $r_1, \dots, r_n >0$ such that for all $k$ we have $B(q,r_k) \subset U_k$. Therefore, $$ \bigcap_{k=1}^n B(q,r_k) \subset \bigcap_{k=1}^n U_k $$
but $\bigcap_{k=1}^n B(q,r_k) = B(q,r)$ where $r = \displaystyle \min_{1 \leq k\leq n} r_k > 0$ so $\bigcap_{k=1}^n U_k$ is a neighborhood of $q$.
Does that answer your question?